Answers to Questions Muslims Ask
Isn't the Bible Corrupted
If one believes the Bible has been corrupted, he/she must answer the question, "When was it corrupted - before Muhammad, or after?" If before Muhammad, then why does the Qur'an itself refer to the Torah and Injil as they existed in Muhammad's day, as authentic records of God's Revelation?
The Qur'an says concerning the Jews, "But why do they come to thee for decision, when they have (their own) Torah before them?-Therein is the (plain) command of Allah" (Surah 5 (Al-Maidah):43, translation by Yusuf Ali). And concerning the Christians the Qur'an says later in the same surah: "Let the People of the Gospel [Injil] judge by what Allah hath revealed therein" (Surah 5:47).
The Qur'an says concerning the Torah possessed by the Jews at Muhammad's time, "Therein is the (plain) command of Allah," and concerning the Gospel (Injil) possessed by the Christians of Muhammad's time it acknowledges that it contains what Allah has revealed. This indicates that the Torah and the Gospel (which are the foundations of the Old and New Testaments in the Bible) did contain an authentic message from God at the time of Muhammad.
If one answers that the Bible was corrupted after Muhammad, then he must answer the question, "How can this be, since we have ancient manuscripts of the Bible from well before the time of Muhammad?"
The translations of the Bible that Christians read today can be confirmed by manuscripts of the Old Testament that date to before the time of Christ (in the Dead Sea scrolls) and manuscripts of the New Testament that date to about 300 A.D. (more than 200 years before Muhammad). If someone had corrupted the Bible after Muhammad, it could be easily detected by comparing it to the ancient manuscripts.
If one believes the Bible has been corrupted, he must also answer the question, "How can this be, since the Word of God by its very nature is eternal and not capable of corruption?" The Qur'an says, "No change can there be in the words of Allah" (Surah 10 (Yunus):64, translated by Yusuf Ali).
Muslims believe this is true of the Qur'an, but if so, then why would it not be true also of the Torah and the Injil, which the Qur'an acknowledges as revelations sent from God? If Allah truly revealed His word in the Torah and Injil at some time, then how could He allow those original revelations to be lost, when God Himself says, "No change can there be in the words of Allah"?
Indeed, the Bible also claims that God's Word cannot be changed, both in the Old Testament: "The grass withers and the flowers fall, but the word of our God stands forever" (Isaiah 40:8), and in the New Testament, where Jesus says of his words, "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words will never pass away" (Matthew 24:35).
If one should reply that the truths of the Torah and Injil are preserved in the Qur'an, it must be asked why the Qur'an records almost none of the actual words of Jesus, when Jesus said, "My words will never pass away"? If one is consistent in saying that God's Word cannot be changed, then this must be applied to God's Word in the Bible.
Next question: Do Christians believe in Three Gods?
The Qur'an says concerning the Jews, "But why do they come to thee for decision, when they have (their own) Torah before them?-Therein is the (plain) command of Allah" (Surah 5 (Al-Maidah):43, translation by Yusuf Ali). And concerning the Christians the Qur'an says later in the same surah: "Let the People of the Gospel [Injil] judge by what Allah hath revealed therein" (Surah 5:47).
The Qur'an says concerning the Torah possessed by the Jews at Muhammad's time, "Therein is the (plain) command of Allah," and concerning the Gospel (Injil) possessed by the Christians of Muhammad's time it acknowledges that it contains what Allah has revealed. This indicates that the Torah and the Gospel (which are the foundations of the Old and New Testaments in the Bible) did contain an authentic message from God at the time of Muhammad.
If one answers that the Bible was corrupted after Muhammad, then he must answer the question, "How can this be, since we have ancient manuscripts of the Bible from well before the time of Muhammad?"
The translations of the Bible that Christians read today can be confirmed by manuscripts of the Old Testament that date to before the time of Christ (in the Dead Sea scrolls) and manuscripts of the New Testament that date to about 300 A.D. (more than 200 years before Muhammad). If someone had corrupted the Bible after Muhammad, it could be easily detected by comparing it to the ancient manuscripts.
If one believes the Bible has been corrupted, he must also answer the question, "How can this be, since the Word of God by its very nature is eternal and not capable of corruption?" The Qur'an says, "No change can there be in the words of Allah" (Surah 10 (Yunus):64, translated by Yusuf Ali).
Muslims believe this is true of the Qur'an, but if so, then why would it not be true also of the Torah and the Injil, which the Qur'an acknowledges as revelations sent from God? If Allah truly revealed His word in the Torah and Injil at some time, then how could He allow those original revelations to be lost, when God Himself says, "No change can there be in the words of Allah"?
Indeed, the Bible also claims that God's Word cannot be changed, both in the Old Testament: "The grass withers and the flowers fall, but the word of our God stands forever" (Isaiah 40:8), and in the New Testament, where Jesus says of his words, "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words will never pass away" (Matthew 24:35).
If one should reply that the truths of the Torah and Injil are preserved in the Qur'an, it must be asked why the Qur'an records almost none of the actual words of Jesus, when Jesus said, "My words will never pass away"? If one is consistent in saying that God's Word cannot be changed, then this must be applied to God's Word in the Bible.
Next question: Do Christians believe in Three Gods?